Monday, July 25, 2016

BSNL Computer Faculty Test – Computer Fundamental Questions

Computer Faculty Test – Computer Fundamental Questions


1.    Where does a computer add and compare data?
a.    Hard Disk
b.    RAM
c.    CPU
d.    Floppy
Ans:     c
2.    Which of the following belongs to the first generation of computer?
a.    ENIAC
b.    IBM 1401
c.    IBM 8090
d.    UNIVAC
Ans:    d
3.    What hardware was used by first generation computers?
a.    Transisitors
b.    Vaccum Tubes
c.    VLSI
d.    ICs
Ans:    b
4.    A collection of eight bits is called _______________
a.    Byte
b.    Word
c.    Record
d.    File
Ans:    a
5.    Basic components of digital computer are:
a.    Input device
b.    Output device
c.    Central  Processing Unit
d.    All of the above
Ans:    d
6.    Which is the most powerful type of computers?
a.    Micro computer
b.    Mini computer
c.    Mainframe computer
d.    Super Computer
Ans:    d
7.    A computer program consists of
a.    Algorithm written in English language
b.    Flowchart
c.    Instruction written in computer language
d.    Discrete logical steps
Ans:    c
8.    Which of these allows the user to add additional components to a computer system?
a.    System board
b.    Storage devices
c.    Input devices
d.    Expansion Slots
Ans:    d
9.    Which is the most common input device used
a.    Motherboard
b.    Scanner
c.    Trackball
d.    Keyboard
Ans:    d
10.    The Central Processing Unit (CPU) consists of:
a.    Input, output and processing
b.    Control unit, primary storage and secondary storage
c.    Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit and primary storage
d.    Control unit, processing, primary storage
Ans:    c
11.    The first commercial computer was
a.    Mark-I
b.    ENIAC
c.    EDSAC
d.    UNIVAC
Ans:    d
12.    Who is called the “grand father” of the computer?
a.    Blaise Pascal
b.    Charles Babbage
c.    Joseph Jacquard
d.    Dr. Herman Hollerith
Ans:    b
13.    The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called
a.    Abacus
b.    Processor
c.    Calculator
d.    Analytic Engine
Ans:    d
14.    The fifth generation digital computer will be
a.    Artificial Intelligence
b.    Versatile
c.    Very Expensive
d.    None of the above
Ans:    a
15.    Transistors were used in _____________ generation of computer
a.    First
b.    Second
c.    Third
d.    Fourth
Ans:    b
16.    Which of the following is a non-volatile memory?
a.    ROM
b.    VLSI
c.    LSI
d.    RAM
Ans:    a
17.    Which is widely used in academic testing?
a.    MICR
b.    POS
c.    OCR
d.    OMR
Ans:    d
18.    Linkage between the CPU and the users is provided by
a.    Storage
b.    Control Unit
c.    Peripheral devices
d.    Software
Ans:    c
19.    Which is a unit of measurement used to measure storage capacity?
a.    Byte
b.    Kilobyte
c.    Megabyte
d.    All of the above
Ans:    d
20.    Hard disks are
a.    Direct access storage devices
b.    Sequential access storage devices
c.    Both  a  and  b
d.    None of the above
Ans:    a
21.    A character is represented in EBCDIC by:
a.    Two bits
b.    Four bits
c.    Eight bits
d.    Sixteen bits
Ans:    c
22.    Which of the following is a secondary storage device
a.    RAM
b.    ALU
c.    Floppy disk
d.    Mouse
Ans:    c
23.    The two kinds of main memory are:
a.    ROM and RAM
b.    Primary and secondary
c.    Floppy disk and hard disk
d.    Direct and sequential
Ans: a
24.    RAM is used as a short memory because it
a.    Is volatile
b.    Is very expensive
c.    Is programmable
d.    None of the above
Ans:    a
25.    The CPU chip used in a computer is partially made out of
a.    Copper
b.    Gold
c.    Iron
d.    Silica
Ans:    d
26.    The silicon chip used for data processing are called
a.    RAM chips
b.    ROM chips
c.    Micro processor
d.    PROM chips
Ans:    c
27.    The computer memory used for temporary storage of data and program is called:
a.    ROM
b.    RAM
c.    EROM
d.    EPROM
Ans:    b
28.    Which of the following is not an output device of a computer?
a.    Printer
b.    Keyboard
c.    VDU
d.    CRT screen
Ans:    b
29.    What is the alternative name for a diskette
a.    Floppy disk
b.    Hard disk
c.    Flexible disk
d.    Winchester disk
Ans:    a
30.    A half byte is known as
a.    Bit
b.    Half Byte
c.    Nibble
d.    Data
Ans:    c
31.    ASCII stands for
a.    American Standard Code for International Interchange
b.    American Standard Code for Information Interchange
c.    American Standard Code for Intelligence Interchange
d.    American Scientific  Code for Information Interchange
Ans:    b
32.    Every component in computer is controlled by
a.    RAM
b.    ROM
c.    CPU
d.    EPROM
Ans:      c
33.    An error in computer program is called
a.    Chip
b.    Bug
c.    Bit
d.    Byte
Ans:     b
34.    Which of the following is not used as secondary storage
a.    Semiconductor memory
b.    Magnetic disk
c.    Floppy disk
d.    Magnetic tapes
Ans:     a
35.    A computer consists of
a.    Central processing unit
b.    Memory
c.    Input and Output Devices
d.    All of the above
Ans:    d
36.    The heart of the computer is
a.    CPU
b.    Memory
c.    Input/Output device
d.    Disk
Ans:    a
37.    Data is processed to generate ________________
a.    Data
b.    Information
c.    Program
d.    Software
Ans:    b
38.What TCP/IP protocol is used for remote terminal connection service?
A. UDP
B. RARP
C. FTP
D. TELNET
E. None of the above
Ans:  D

Wednesday, July 20, 2016

BSNL JTO solver question paper

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It's value for all substances is less than one
d) None
Answer is :- It is dimensionless


2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
Answer is :- high conductivity and large temperature coefficient


3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
Answer is :- Air


4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on
applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
Answer is :- C a V-1/3


5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical
temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it
exceeds a critical valueAnswer is :-A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature


6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of "
2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
Answer is :- Forward biased pn junction diode


7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
Answer is :- Near the transformer


8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer is :- Increased


9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
Answer is :- Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from


10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
Answer is :- Gate reverse bias


11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order
of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
Answer is :- 105


12. When biased correctly, a zener diode "
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
Answer is :- has a constant voltage across it


13. The current amplification factor alpha is given by "
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
Answer is :- IC/IE


14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
Answer is :- high input impedance


15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
Answer is :- both a and b


16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
Answer is :- Pair of four layer SCRs


17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be "
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
Answer is :- 103/ cm3


18. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero' represents -
a) Kirchhoff's law
b) Norton's theorem
c) Thevenin's theorem
d) Superposition theorem
Answer is :- Superposition theorem


19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is "
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
Answer is :- TE01 mode


20. A two-port network is symmetrical if "
a) z11z22 " z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 " h12h21 = 1
c) AD " BC = 1
d) y11y22 " y12y21 = 1
Answer is :-AD " BC = 1


21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
Answer is :- double stub


22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
Answer is:- only by an RLC network


23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements "
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
Answer is :- L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to "
a) B
b) Z12
c) "
d) h12
Answer is :- Z12


25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is
proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
Answer is :-Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.


26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 "300 MHz
b) 150 " 200 MHz
c) 90 " 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
Answer is :-90 " 105 MHz


27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be
eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
Answer is :- Inductive loading


28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
Answer is :- 70 W


30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be "
a) 25W
b) 50Wc) 100W
d) 150W
Answer is :- 25W


31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency 'f' in
a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
Answer is :- directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m


32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
Answer is :- 2.44560


33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index An,


34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron
Answer is :- Electrostatic


35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit
then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero
Answer is :- An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A


36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is larged) none of these
Answer is :- none of these


37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it's internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
Answer is :- the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display


38. A memoryless system is "
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none
Answer is :- causal


39. An air capacitor is a "
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device
Answer is :-time invariant and passive device


40. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor
Answer is :- sintered mixtures of metallic oxides


41. Pirani gauge is used to measure "
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow
Answer is :- very low pressures


42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different
frequency through one stage conversion "
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters
Answer is :-Cyclo converters


43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from "
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state
Answer is :- off state to on state


44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction
state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
Answer is :- peak working off state forward voltage


45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg " Ig
Answer is :-has a spread between two curves of Vg " Ig


46. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back
Answer is :-two full converters connected back to back


47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are "
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P
Answer is :- 2Vs, 2P


48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has "
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
Answer is :- only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages


49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature
Answer is :-decrease with temperature


50. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages
Answer is :-transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.


51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
Answer is :- Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes


52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance
Answer is :- Increase in ICEO


53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz
Answer is :- 30KHz


54. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
Answer is :- consists of positive half cycles only

55. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above
Answer is :- all of the above


56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
1d) An additional local oscillator will be needed
Answer is :- A FM detector would be required


57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above
Answer is :- slower speed


58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by "
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc
Answer is :- ?t = N ´ 1/Fc


59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is
applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be "
(y denotes don't care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y
Answer is :- y and 0


60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of "
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance
Answer is :- a transistor acting as a capacitor


61. The 2's complement of 10002 is "
a) 0111b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001
Answer is :-1000


62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of "
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch
Answer is :-two flip flops connected in series


63. Number of nybbles making one byte is "
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
Answer is :- 2


64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency
Answer is :-is independent of frequency


65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its
magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) "200 dB/decade
b) "240 dB/decade
c) "230 dB/decade
d) "320 dB/decade
Answer is :- "200 dB/decade


66. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin System stability requirements would include?
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer is :-2, 3 and 4 swer is :- Polystyrene,


67. In the equatorial plane only Geosynchronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides "
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs
Answer is :- stationary satellite


68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of "
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above
Answer is :- frequency multiplexing


69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a "
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
Answer is:- A clipper circuit by a LPF


70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using "
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration
Answer is :- AND gates


71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two " tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation
Answer is :- frequency shift keying


72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation
Answer is :- FM generation only


73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dotsc) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen
Answer is :- increase screen brightness


74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current
Answer is :- a sawtooth current


75. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz "100 GHz
c) 1 GHz "10 GHz
d) 1 GHz " 106 GHz
Answer is :- 1GHz -103 GHz


76. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
Answer is :- no magnetic line is in direction of propagation


77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to "
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None
Answer is :- Reforction of wave


78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be "
a) 6000
b) 9000
c) 18000
d) 36000
Answer is :- 3600


79. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise
Answer is :- Partition noise


80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device
Answer is :- capacitance


81. Noise figure is calculated as "
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio
Answer is :- i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio


82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by "
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
Answer is :- Bode plot


83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) "5, 1
b) "2.5, 1
c) "5,0-5
d) "5, 2
Answer is :- "5, 1


84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by F(s)=10s(s+7)/(s+1)(s+8)(s+10) The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80
Answer is :-10 and zero


85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to "
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain
Answer is :- avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal


86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
Answer is :- Coverage area


87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace
Answer is :-vertical blanking


88. The son seems to have """ from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt
Answer is :-inherited


89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills
Answer is :- stone


90. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet
Answer is :- flock


91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither
Answer is :- and


92. What is the opposite of Asperity "
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity
Answer is :- superiority


93. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister's Secretariat
d) None of these
Answer is :-None of these


94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President's Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned
Answer is :- Emergency is declared


95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner
Answer is :- Becquerel


96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003
Answer is :- 1997-2002


97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the
year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW
Answer is :- 10,000 MW


98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789c) 1889
d) 1869
Answer is :- 1789


99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership
Answer is :- 1/10th of total membership


100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
Answer is :- 10


101. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000
meridian
b) 000
meridian
c) 1800
meridian
d) 900
meridian
Answer is :- 1800 meridian


102. India's first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome
Answer is :- A Soviet cosmodrome


103. Name the author of the famous book "Politics-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them
Answer is :- Aristotle


104. "Guernica is Picasso's painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution
Answer is :- The Spanish Civil War


105. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these
Answer is :- To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers


106. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously
developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China
Answer is :- China


107. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland
Answer is :- Nagaland


108) The polar plot of G(S) = 10/s(s+1) 2 intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by?
Answer is :- "5, 1

Tuesday, July 19, 2016

BSNL(JTO) Examination 2006 Solved question paper with solutions


Solution

Max Power=Voltage x Current=220x60=1980;      Number=max power/power=1980/60=33

Answer (b)=33
Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS
= 1 µA & VP=–5V. The maximum transconductance is
(a) gm
= 0.4 milli mho (b) gm= 0.04milli mho
(c) gm= 0.04 mho
(d) gm= 0.4 millimilli mho
Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter current is zero. If B1 R = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6
Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A

Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm
Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI / 2 (d) mI 3
BSNL JTO Exam (Memory Based Questions)
Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above
Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the
standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25
Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped



Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450 Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF
Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8 (infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance.
The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8
Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps
Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency the current
(a) I leads Vs
(b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs
(d) None of these
Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax
= 10 Watt/Sr and average radiation intensity Uavg
= 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency of the antenna is given as ?r
= 95%, the input power of the antenna is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt
Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3 metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach
Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance 500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz. If the line is terminated by ZL
at a distance 1 Km, the input impedance s of the line for Z L
= 8 (infinity) and Z L
= 0 (zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8,
Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 ˆy cos (109t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m
Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of 200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20 ) / 4 (b) ( 10 / 4 )
(c) ( 20 / 2 ) (d) ( 10 / 2 )
Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements,while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units,
while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage
measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current
measuring units
Answers:
1 . (b)2 . (d)3 . (b) 4 . (b)5 . (d)
6 .( c )7 . (c) 8 . (b)9 . ( a )
1 0 .(d)1 1 . ( a )1 2 . ( a )1 3 . ( c )
1 4 . ( c )1 5 . ( a )1 6 . (d)1 7 . ( a )
1 8 . (b)1 9 . (d)2 0 . ( a )

BSNL Sample question

Basic Electrical Engineering: for BSNL preparation

Basic Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

[1] Power is defined as
a) The rate at which current flows in a circuit
b) The product of voltage and resistance in a circuit
c) The rate at which energy is radiated or dissipated
d) The accumulation of energy over time
e) The amount of heat generated in a circuit.
Tip: Power=product of current and voltage, so  answer 1&2 are wrong,it is not accumuled or the amount of heat
Ans:C
[2] At the exact moment a 60Hz ac sine wave is at its positive peak voltage, the instantaneous rate of change in the voltage is
a) Large and positive
b) Small and negative
c) Large and negative
d) Small and negative
e) Zero

Ans: E
[3] A flute sounds different than a violin, even if the two instruments are played at the same pitch, because of a difference in the
a) Phase
b) Chamber length
c)  Frequency
d) Waveform
e)  Bias

Ans:D
[4] A common-collector transistor circuit is often used
a)  To provide high gain and sensitivity over a wide range of frequencies
b)  To match a high impedance to a low impedance
c)  As a high-fidelity audio power amplifier
d)  As an oscillator at microwaves frequencies
e)  As the rectifier in a dc power supply.

Ans: B
[5] The internal conductance of an ammeter is generally
a)  Low
b)  Directly proportional to the current
c)  Inversely proportional to the current
d)  High
e)  Any value. It doest matter
Tip:Ammeter connected in series, so need low resistance, conductance is the reciprocal of resistance and hence answer is
Ans: D
[6] A steady magnetic field can be produced by
a)  A straight wire carrying a constant direct current.
b)  A loop of wire carrying a constant direct current.
c)  A coil of wire carrying a constant direct current.
d)  A constant-intensity stream of protons in free space, moving in a straight line.
e)  Any of the above.

Ans:E
[7] The output wave of a common-gate amplifier circuit with a pure sine-wave input
a)  Is in phase with the input wave.
b)  Lags the input wave by 90° of phase.
c)  Leads the input wave by 90° of phase.
d)  Is 180° out of phase with the input wave.
e)  Is inverted with respect to the input wave.

Ans:A
[8] Which of the following capacitor types is polarized?
a)  Electrolytic
b)  Paper
c)  Ceramic
d)  Mica
e)  Air variable

Ans: A
[9] when a non zero net reactance exists in an ac circuit, the apparent power is
a)  Zero
b)  Equal to the true power
c)  Less than the true power
d)  Greater than the true power
e)  Infinite

Ans: D
[10] The gauss is a unit of
(a) Charge carrier flow speed.
(b) Magnetic flux density.
(c) Electrostatic field strength.
(d) Electromagnetic field intensity.
(e) Electrical charge quantity.

Ans:B. Exp: In SI system the unit is tesla(T). In CGS system the unit is Gauss
[11] An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be ?
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V

Ans:B

[12] A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is

a) 11
b) 33
c) 22
d) 44

p=vi=220x9=1980;   number=max.power/60=33

Ans: B

[13] Silicon has a preference in IC technology because

(a) It is an indirect semiconductor
(b) It is a covalent semiconductor
(c) It is an elemental semiconductor
(d) Of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Tip:Si is indirect bandgap but for IC technology SiO layer is more important

Ans:D

[14] Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be

(a) 5 Ohm 
(b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm 
(d) 3/5 Ohm

Ans: C

[15] The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is

(a) Im / 1 
(b) Im / v2
(c) Im / 2 
(d) Im v3
Ans: C